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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 06:44

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why am I losing interest to get a job and to all my desires because of this spiritual awakening? How do I get through life because of it?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Trump always acts like he was forced to be president, that he was chosen by God. Why do we put up with this? This maniac can't focus and get his mind off of being asskissed like an emperor.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Which branch of engineering is better: ECE or Civil?

There's no rule.